Q. What does it mean in Mark 10.43-47 where it says that we are to cut off our hands and feet and cut out our eyes if they cause us to stumble?
A. These are idioms for things that are important to us. Let's start in v 43 with the hand. His sense is that dear friends and relatives are to be renounced or "given up" if they draw us away from the Lord. It is better to part with everything now that is detrimental to us. In v 45 he mentions the foot. The foot is what supports us and he is saying that we have to give those up who "support" us than to give in to evil. In v 47 he mentions the eye and that symbolizes that which is most dear to us (Deut 32.10). Now, in these verses he mentions "where their worm does not die" and that has to do with the conscience (Rev 20.10; Isa 66.24). If one does not give up those people or things that are important to us and they keep us from entering into the salvation that the Lord has, we will be lost. It would be better to lose those things here, in this life, than to lose our souls. If we don't, than in hell our consciences will "gnaw at us like a worm" and torment us, filling us with anguish over what was lost. The key to this whole passage is v 49 where it says "for everyone will be salted with salt.". This means that every follower of the Lord will have "fiery trials" to go through. And, like the sacrifices in the Temple had to be salted with salt to be acceptable, we, too, must be salted with salt to be acceptable and a well pleasing "odor" to the Lord, so we must be salted. Salt is good, but if the salt loses its flavor, how are we to make it favorable again? We are to have salt in ourselves, which means we are to retain in ourselves those valuable qualities that will make us a blessing (favorable) to others.
The La Quinta meeting room in Alvarado, 1165 Hwy 67W Alvarado, TX. 76009. (Behind Sonic)
For information Email at wmriley17@yahoo.com
Olive Tree Image
upon whom the ends of the ages have come.
1 Corinthians 10:11 (NASB95)
Monday, April 18, 2011
Tuesday, April 5, 2011
This week we are going to continue with the topic of "coverings" and we have been working out of 1 Cor 11. 1-16 and hopefully what Paul intended to convey is much clearer. He was dealing with the marriage relationship and he was using Gen 3.16 and Num 30 as a source for what he was teaching. Now we are going to look at several verses in the New Testament in light of what we have learned and to clear up what the meanings are. Remember, we are reading from translations and although most do a good job in trying to convey a proper meaning, the text often will come across with the particular slant of the translators. We do not have the original autographs of Paul so we have to do the best we can to decipher what was really going on. In the verses we are going to look at, this truly is the case and they have been misinterpreted for a long time. But, if we look at them with what we have now learned about coverings as based on what the Torah teaches they become much clearer.
The first one we are going to take a look at is 1 Cor 14.34-35. What Paul is basing his teaching on is Gen 3.16 and Num 30.1-16. Also, Zodiates Hebrew-Greek translation of the Bible has excellent notes on these verses. So, let's look at these verses like before with some commentary to help bring out the meaning. Keep in mind what we have already gone over in 1 Cor 11 as we do this.
v34....Let the women (wives in particular) keep silent in the churches (be courteous, don't interrupt by breaking in to judge a prophecy. Paul already said that they could speak, pray and prophesy in 1 Cor 11.5. So, silent is not the issue but judging a prophecy is)
....for they are not permitted to speak (or go against the authority of the their husbands. This instruction had to do with the Corinthian women in particular and not an overall injunction for all believing women. They did not have the knowledge or experience yet and some believed that they were superior to men)
....but let them subject themselves, just as the Law (Torah) also says (Gen 3.16, Num 30 ..they key to understanding these passages)
v35....and if they desire to learn anything, let them ask their own husbands (their covering) at home, for it is improper for
a woman (wife) to speak in church (against the authority of her husband).
The second verse is1 Tim 2.11-15 which has a very similar theme as 1 Cor 14so let's look at this verse.
v11....Let a woman (wife) quietly receive instruction with entire submissiveness (learn in tranquility, silence or an attitude of composure)
v12....But I do not allow a woman (wife) to teach (wrong doctrine) or exercise authority (by dominating) over a man (husband), but to remain quiet (composed). Zodiates in his translation says this "A wife, in quietness, I let learn in submission, but a wife I will not let dominate a husband but to be in all quietness." Now, Paul was writing to believers in Ephesus which was home to the Diana cult and they tried to seduce believers with wrong doctrine and the women believed in their superiority over men. Paul is trying to lay a proper, Torah-based foundation with these believers which went against much of their previous religious training
v13....For it was Adam who was first created, not Eve (which is why she is to be subject to her own husband)
v14....and not Adam who was deceived, but the woman being quite deceived, fell into transgression
v15....But women (wives) shall be preserved through the bearing of children (women are preserved for this even though they bring forth children in pain and sorrow according to the original curse in Gen 3.16) if they continue in faith and love and sanctity with self restraint (and not a temporary confession like in Luke 8.13).
So, as you can see, once you put these verses back into their proper Hebraic context you can see that Paul was teaching the proper authority in a marriage and "who covers who" in a spiritual context before the Lord and using that knowledge to deal with particular issues that had arisen in Corinth and Ephesus, two very pagan and Greek cities. It is a classic example of Hebraic thought over Hellenistic thought. It was a problem back then and it is a problem now but hopefully you have some better insight into what Paul was trying to communicate. These verses and their misinterpretation has subjected women to a second class position in congregations but that was the furthest thing from Paul's mind. Why would God fill a woman with the Holy Spirit and then tell her to be silent! The answer is He doesn't and this can be shown using these controversial verses and putting them into the correct Hebraic context.
The first one we are going to take a look at is 1 Cor 14.34-35. What Paul is basing his teaching on is Gen 3.16 and Num 30.1-16. Also, Zodiates Hebrew-Greek translation of the Bible has excellent notes on these verses. So, let's look at these verses like before with some commentary to help bring out the meaning. Keep in mind what we have already gone over in 1 Cor 11 as we do this.
v34....Let the women (wives in particular) keep silent in the churches (be courteous, don't interrupt by breaking in to judge a prophecy. Paul already said that they could speak, pray and prophesy in 1 Cor 11.5. So, silent is not the issue but judging a prophecy is)
....for they are not permitted to speak (or go against the authority of the their husbands. This instruction had to do with the Corinthian women in particular and not an overall injunction for all believing women. They did not have the knowledge or experience yet and some believed that they were superior to men)
....but let them subject themselves, just as the Law (Torah) also says (Gen 3.16, Num 30 ..they key to understanding these passages)
v35....and if they desire to learn anything, let them ask their own husbands (their covering) at home, for it is improper for
a woman (wife) to speak in church (against the authority of her husband).
The second verse is1 Tim 2.11-15 which has a very similar theme as 1 Cor 14so let's look at this verse.
v11....Let a woman (wife) quietly receive instruction with entire submissiveness (learn in tranquility, silence or an attitude of composure)
v12....But I do not allow a woman (wife) to teach (wrong doctrine) or exercise authority (by dominating) over a man (husband), but to remain quiet (composed). Zodiates in his translation says this "A wife, in quietness, I let learn in submission, but a wife I will not let dominate a husband but to be in all quietness." Now, Paul was writing to believers in Ephesus which was home to the Diana cult and they tried to seduce believers with wrong doctrine and the women believed in their superiority over men. Paul is trying to lay a proper, Torah-based foundation with these believers which went against much of their previous religious training
v13....For it was Adam who was first created, not Eve (which is why she is to be subject to her own husband)
v14....and not Adam who was deceived, but the woman being quite deceived, fell into transgression
v15....But women (wives) shall be preserved through the bearing of children (women are preserved for this even though they bring forth children in pain and sorrow according to the original curse in Gen 3.16) if they continue in faith and love and sanctity with self restraint (and not a temporary confession like in Luke 8.13).
So, as you can see, once you put these verses back into their proper Hebraic context you can see that Paul was teaching the proper authority in a marriage and "who covers who" in a spiritual context before the Lord and using that knowledge to deal with particular issues that had arisen in Corinth and Ephesus, two very pagan and Greek cities. It is a classic example of Hebraic thought over Hellenistic thought. It was a problem back then and it is a problem now but hopefully you have some better insight into what Paul was trying to communicate. These verses and their misinterpretation has subjected women to a second class position in congregations but that was the furthest thing from Paul's mind. Why would God fill a woman with the Holy Spirit and then tell her to be silent! The answer is He doesn't and this can be shown using these controversial verses and putting them into the correct Hebraic context.
Tuesday, March 29, 2011
This week we are going to continue with 1Cor 11.1-16 and the subject of head coverings. Again, the key to understanding this portion is v3 and we are going to continue with verse 10 and will intermingle commentary with the verse.
v10....Therefore, the woman ought to have authority (a ruling power, like a husband or father) on her head (v3), because of of the angels (who usurped authority that wasn't theirs and fell).
v11....However, in the Lord neither is woman independent of man nor is man independent of the woman(but together are complete).
v12....For as the woman originated from man, so also the man has his birth through a woman and all things originate from God.
v13....Judge for yourselves, is it proper for a woman (remember, woman in many cases is to be understood as "wife", especially here) to pray to God uncovered (by going against her husband's authority..no!).
v14....Does not even nature teach you that if a man has long hair, it is dishonorable to him..
v15....but if a woman has long hair it is a glory to her. For her hair is given to her for a covering.
v16....But if one is inclined to be contentious, we have no other practice nor have the churches (don't bother to argue about this because the Scriptures teach this headship concept).
So, with that in mind let's briefly look at Num 30. 1-16. This chapter is called the Law of the Tongue and it has to do with the power of the spoken word and it is based on tribal concepts and customs. These concepts would be carried down even after Israel was settled in their own land. When congregations were established, these concepts were used to keep order not only in the congregation, but also the family. The basis for this Torah instruction is found in Gen 3.16. Basically, the heads of the tribes were told that if a man makes a vow, he better keep it. Also, if a woman makes a vow but lives in her father's house and her father hears the vow, he can annul the vow. But, if he does nothing the vow stands. The same is true for a wife.The husband can annul her vow on the day he hears of it, but if he says nothing then it stands. The point is the daughter and the wife have a head over them and they cannot usurp authority over their "head". This basic order goes all the way back to Gen 3.16 and when Paul is giving this basic instruction in 1 Cor 11 he is drawing from many verses and concepts found in the Torah. This concept in 1 Cor 11 is nothing new and is merely passing on to the Corinthians what was already being taught since creation. The Corinthians had a particular problem at that time because of the Greek religious cults that told women that they didn't have to listen to men, that they were independent and could do what they wanted to. Well, once these pagan people became believers they still carried some of their old religious concepts with them and that's why Paul had to deal with it. This is not saying that a man is better than a woman but that there was an order established since creation and the Corinthians had no idea about them, so Paul is establishing a biblical order for their congregation. Remember, he praised them in 1 Cor 11.2 for holding fast to the "traditions" (Jewish concepts and laws in line with Scripture) and this one of the concepts he is teaching them. Now, in light of what we have learned so far about authority, next week we'll look at 1 Cor 14.34-36 and 1 Tim 2.11-15 in the New Testament and hopefully clear up some misinterpretation concerning these verses.
v10....Therefore, the woman ought to have authority (a ruling power, like a husband or father) on her head (v3), because of of the angels (who usurped authority that wasn't theirs and fell).
v11....However, in the Lord neither is woman independent of man nor is man independent of the woman(but together are complete).
v12....For as the woman originated from man, so also the man has his birth through a woman and all things originate from God.
v13....Judge for yourselves, is it proper for a woman (remember, woman in many cases is to be understood as "wife", especially here) to pray to God uncovered (by going against her husband's authority..no!).
v14....Does not even nature teach you that if a man has long hair, it is dishonorable to him..
v15....but if a woman has long hair it is a glory to her. For her hair is given to her for a covering.
v16....But if one is inclined to be contentious, we have no other practice nor have the churches (don't bother to argue about this because the Scriptures teach this headship concept).
So, with that in mind let's briefly look at Num 30. 1-16. This chapter is called the Law of the Tongue and it has to do with the power of the spoken word and it is based on tribal concepts and customs. These concepts would be carried down even after Israel was settled in their own land. When congregations were established, these concepts were used to keep order not only in the congregation, but also the family. The basis for this Torah instruction is found in Gen 3.16. Basically, the heads of the tribes were told that if a man makes a vow, he better keep it. Also, if a woman makes a vow but lives in her father's house and her father hears the vow, he can annul the vow. But, if he does nothing the vow stands. The same is true for a wife.The husband can annul her vow on the day he hears of it, but if he says nothing then it stands. The point is the daughter and the wife have a head over them and they cannot usurp authority over their "head". This basic order goes all the way back to Gen 3.16 and when Paul is giving this basic instruction in 1 Cor 11 he is drawing from many verses and concepts found in the Torah. This concept in 1 Cor 11 is nothing new and is merely passing on to the Corinthians what was already being taught since creation. The Corinthians had a particular problem at that time because of the Greek religious cults that told women that they didn't have to listen to men, that they were independent and could do what they wanted to. Well, once these pagan people became believers they still carried some of their old religious concepts with them and that's why Paul had to deal with it. This is not saying that a man is better than a woman but that there was an order established since creation and the Corinthians had no idea about them, so Paul is establishing a biblical order for their congregation. Remember, he praised them in 1 Cor 11.2 for holding fast to the "traditions" (Jewish concepts and laws in line with Scripture) and this one of the concepts he is teaching them. Now, in light of what we have learned so far about authority, next week we'll look at 1 Cor 14.34-36 and 1 Tim 2.11-15 in the New Testament and hopefully clear up some misinterpretation concerning these verses.
Monday, March 21, 2011
Q. In 1 Cor 11.1-16 it talks about a woman having her head covered. Does this mean a woman should be wearing a head covering or what is Paul trying to say.
A. No, Paul is not telling women to cover their heads with a head covering but he is laying out what the proper behaviors are in public worship concerning the husband-wife relationship. This teaching is based on several passages in the Torah, particularly Num 30 where it says that a wife is under her husbands authority when it comes to what she says she is going to say or do. This concept will also come up in 1 Tim 2.11-12 and I will deal with that verse later. But first, let's go 1 Cor 11.1-16 verse by verse so that we can get it into context. In verse 1 he says that the people should imitate Paul as he imitates Messiah. He them praises them in v 2 because they are holding fast to the "traditions" as he delivered them to the Corinthians. The word traditions is the Greek word "paradosis" which means the traditional and biblical concepts found in the Torah and the ones he taught, not all the man-made traditions the Jewish people had at the time. Now, v 3 is the key to understanding this whole passage. He lays out the line of authority and the roles that each should play. It seems that the Corinthians still had Greek concepts about the roles of men and women that were not consistent with the Scriptures. He tries to show that this authority does not mean that men were better, smarter and more capable than women but he is laying out what the biblical roles for each were. Messiah is the "head" of every man and the man is the "head" of every woman. In this context "man" and "woman" should be understood as husband and wife. So I am going to write the verse from now on and then add commentary that will bring out what Paul is trying to say.
v4....every man who has his head covered (by anything else but Messiah. This could be his own wife, family, an organization or whatever interferes with what Messiah has told him to do) while praying or prophesying disgraces his head (Messiah)
v5....but every woman who who has her head uncovered (against the ruling authority in her life like a husband or father..Num 30, Eph 5.22) while praying or prophesying disgraces her head( her husband, father or biblical ruling authority) for she is one who and the same with her whose head is shaved (done to an adulteress. So she is like a "spiritual" harlot).
v6....for if a woman does not cover her head (goes against her husbands authority) let her have her hair cut off (not literally but he is saying she is like an adulteress); but if it is disgraceful for a woman to have her hair cut off and her hair shaved, let her cover her head (come under her husband's authority)
v7....for a man ought not to have his head covered (by any other authority than Messiah) since he is in the image and glory of God (who made him) but the woman is the glory of man ( in Greek there is a definite article before man. It means a definite man, "a" man, in this case Adam)
v8....for man does not originate from woman, but woman from man (that's why her husband is her authority)
v9....for indeed man was not created for the woman's sake, but woman for the man's sake.
Next week we will pick up in verse 10 and then look at a few other passages in the New Testament in light of our understanding of 1 Cor 11. 1-16 which will hopefully clear up some misunderstanding.
A. No, Paul is not telling women to cover their heads with a head covering but he is laying out what the proper behaviors are in public worship concerning the husband-wife relationship. This teaching is based on several passages in the Torah, particularly Num 30 where it says that a wife is under her husbands authority when it comes to what she says she is going to say or do. This concept will also come up in 1 Tim 2.11-12 and I will deal with that verse later. But first, let's go 1 Cor 11.1-16 verse by verse so that we can get it into context. In verse 1 he says that the people should imitate Paul as he imitates Messiah. He them praises them in v 2 because they are holding fast to the "traditions" as he delivered them to the Corinthians. The word traditions is the Greek word "paradosis" which means the traditional and biblical concepts found in the Torah and the ones he taught, not all the man-made traditions the Jewish people had at the time. Now, v 3 is the key to understanding this whole passage. He lays out the line of authority and the roles that each should play. It seems that the Corinthians still had Greek concepts about the roles of men and women that were not consistent with the Scriptures. He tries to show that this authority does not mean that men were better, smarter and more capable than women but he is laying out what the biblical roles for each were. Messiah is the "head" of every man and the man is the "head" of every woman. In this context "man" and "woman" should be understood as husband and wife. So I am going to write the verse from now on and then add commentary that will bring out what Paul is trying to say.
v4....every man who has his head covered (by anything else but Messiah. This could be his own wife, family, an organization or whatever interferes with what Messiah has told him to do) while praying or prophesying disgraces his head (Messiah)
v5....but every woman who who has her head uncovered (against the ruling authority in her life like a husband or father..Num 30, Eph 5.22) while praying or prophesying disgraces her head( her husband, father or biblical ruling authority) for she is one who and the same with her whose head is shaved (done to an adulteress. So she is like a "spiritual" harlot).
v6....for if a woman does not cover her head (goes against her husbands authority) let her have her hair cut off (not literally but he is saying she is like an adulteress); but if it is disgraceful for a woman to have her hair cut off and her hair shaved, let her cover her head (come under her husband's authority)
v7....for a man ought not to have his head covered (by any other authority than Messiah) since he is in the image and glory of God (who made him) but the woman is the glory of man ( in Greek there is a definite article before man. It means a definite man, "a" man, in this case Adam)
v8....for man does not originate from woman, but woman from man (that's why her husband is her authority)
v9....for indeed man was not created for the woman's sake, but woman for the man's sake.
Next week we will pick up in verse 10 and then look at a few other passages in the New Testament in light of our understanding of 1 Cor 11. 1-16 which will hopefully clear up some misunderstanding.
Monday, February 28, 2011
Q. In Matt 3.10 it says that "the axe is already laid at the root of the tree." What does that mean?
A. These words were spoken by John the Baptist as he was preaching along the Jordan, preparing people for the coming of the Messiah. They were to get ready spiritually and repent from all the false teachings that they were hearing from the religious leaders. The prevailing thought was that God wasn't going to judge them because they were His children and the Temple was there and they were exempt from a few things, most notably faith in the Lord. Now, not everyone believed this but John was speaking to a mixed crowd and some thought that because they were Jewish they had something special (3.9) and God would never do away with Israel. Many knew the prophecies of Daniel and knew that Rome was the fourth kingdom predicted and believed that Messiah was coming. As a result, he would do away with Rome and establish Israel as the head of the nations. What they didn't see was that prophecy was going to take two thousand years to be fulfilled and the Messiah was going to be cut off and the nation would be destroyed and scattered among the nations. Rome had already conquered Israel and was already in the land administering Roman rule, although they allowed the Jews to practice their religion. So, John was telling the people to get ready, judgment was coming and the "axe" (Rome) was already at the root of the "tree" (Israel). In other words, the Lord has already moved in with His instrument of judgment (Rome/axe) and if the people did not turn to the Lord they were going to be cut down. Matt 15.13 says that every plant that was not planted by the Lord was going to be "cut down" and that happened in 70 A.D. during the first Jewish revolt.
Monday, February 21, 2011
Q. Will all Christians be raised at the first resurrection or will some be raised at the first resurrection and some be raised at the end of the thousand years?
A. The resurrection is going to happen in stages and at different times. All believers will be in what is called the first resurrection even though it happens in stages and several thousand years apart in some cases. Once you know the stages you can read a verse and know when it is talking about. Dan 12.2 talks about the the righteous and unrighteous being raised but it may be thousands of years between the two. So, let's look at the stages. First, Yeshua was raised from the dead as we all know (Mt 28.1-7; Mk 16.1-11). But, what many fail to see is that others were resurrected within hours and were seen in the city (Mt 27.50-53). So, the first resurrection has already started. It's been two thousand years since that first stage but the next stage is coming up at the Natzal, or rapture, before the Tribulation period begins (1 Thes 4.13-18; 1 Cor 15.50-53). This will include every believer from creation and also those who are alive at the time. They will have their bodies changed to enter into the eternal state with the Lord and then return to earth with Him at His Second Coming. The bodies of all unbelievers will remain in the earth. In the middle of the Tribulation there will be the resurrection of the two witnesses (Rev 11.11-12). Then, at the beginning of the Messianic Kingdom those believers that died during the Tribulation will be raised (Rev 20.4-6). Those who survived the Tribulation will enter the Messianic Kingdom in natural bodies and were not killed when Yeshua returned and judged the nations (Mt 25). They will have children, but some will believe and others won't and this will go on for a thousand years. Lastly, at the end of the Messianic Kingdom, all unbelievers will be judged. Some will still be in natural bodies at the end of the thousand years but those who have died during the seven thousand years of human history will be raised at the Great White Throne judgment and stand before God (Rev 20.11-15). This is not for salvation but for judgment because they rejected eternal life. The resurrection of believers who died during the Messianic Kingdom is not mentioned in these verses but can be assumed. It could be that they are resurrected first and changed and will be present for the confirmation of their being justified by faith by the Lord. Their eternal state has been already assigned to them. Further light may be cast on this as the Messianic Kingdom goes along. After that, all unbelievers will be present and judged on their works because they rejected salvation by faith. As a result , they will be cast into the Lake of Fire, an eternal sate of separation from God and from that point God leads only those justified by faith into what is called the Olam Haba, or the World to Come. So, in conclusion, believers who have died will have a part in the first resurrection even though it happens in stages and at various times. Any unbeliever who has died will wait till the Great White Throne judgment and be raised and judged at that time.
A. The resurrection is going to happen in stages and at different times. All believers will be in what is called the first resurrection even though it happens in stages and several thousand years apart in some cases. Once you know the stages you can read a verse and know when it is talking about. Dan 12.2 talks about the the righteous and unrighteous being raised but it may be thousands of years between the two. So, let's look at the stages. First, Yeshua was raised from the dead as we all know (Mt 28.1-7; Mk 16.1-11). But, what many fail to see is that others were resurrected within hours and were seen in the city (Mt 27.50-53). So, the first resurrection has already started. It's been two thousand years since that first stage but the next stage is coming up at the Natzal, or rapture, before the Tribulation period begins (1 Thes 4.13-18; 1 Cor 15.50-53). This will include every believer from creation and also those who are alive at the time. They will have their bodies changed to enter into the eternal state with the Lord and then return to earth with Him at His Second Coming. The bodies of all unbelievers will remain in the earth. In the middle of the Tribulation there will be the resurrection of the two witnesses (Rev 11.11-12). Then, at the beginning of the Messianic Kingdom those believers that died during the Tribulation will be raised (Rev 20.4-6). Those who survived the Tribulation will enter the Messianic Kingdom in natural bodies and were not killed when Yeshua returned and judged the nations (Mt 25). They will have children, but some will believe and others won't and this will go on for a thousand years. Lastly, at the end of the Messianic Kingdom, all unbelievers will be judged. Some will still be in natural bodies at the end of the thousand years but those who have died during the seven thousand years of human history will be raised at the Great White Throne judgment and stand before God (Rev 20.11-15). This is not for salvation but for judgment because they rejected eternal life. The resurrection of believers who died during the Messianic Kingdom is not mentioned in these verses but can be assumed. It could be that they are resurrected first and changed and will be present for the confirmation of their being justified by faith by the Lord. Their eternal state has been already assigned to them. Further light may be cast on this as the Messianic Kingdom goes along. After that, all unbelievers will be present and judged on their works because they rejected salvation by faith. As a result , they will be cast into the Lake of Fire, an eternal sate of separation from God and from that point God leads only those justified by faith into what is called the Olam Haba, or the World to Come. So, in conclusion, believers who have died will have a part in the first resurrection even though it happens in stages and at various times. Any unbeliever who has died will wait till the Great White Throne judgment and be raised and judged at that time.
Monday, February 14, 2011
Q. What does it mean when it says "the veil of the Temple was torn?"
A. This is a very mystical expression and let me explain some things. The expression is found in many places but I assume you are referring to the phrase in Mt 27.51. The veil that was torn was the outer veil leading into the Holy Place of the sanctuary, not the Holy of Holies. That had two veils and it could be entered by walking between the veils. This outer veil of the gate on the Ulam (porch) of the sanctuary was made of four colors. Blue indicating the heavens; linen, or flax, was brownish in color symbolizing the earth; scarlet indicating fire and purple stood for the sea. This veil had stars and the known planets on them and it was called the "panorama of the heavens." This gate to the sanctuary where the veil stood opened by itself for 40 years after the death of Yeshua. This curtain, or "the heavens", was opened on the 9th of Av and other occasions for the people to look into the holy of holies and so the veil being taken away was done before (Josephus, Wars, Bk 5; Hertz Siddur p. 959; Kaplan,Torah Anthology, p 91). The "tearing" or opening of this veil meant that the deeper things of God will now be understood, or open. When Stephen in Acts 7 or John in Rev 4 saw the heavens "opened" it meant access to the hidden, the mystical. It meant you are about to understand the deeper things of God and in Stephens case he was going there in person. So, with that in mind when it says in Psa 84.10 that "I would rather stand at the threshold (door) of the house of my God" now you know why. To be a "door man" in the house of God means that you can "open" up to the people the mystical, hidden, deep things of God. So, when Yeshua died on the cross and this veil was torn, opened, so the people already knew what this meant and that God was revealing something very deep and access to the things of God to be revealed was now accomplished for anyone who believes. There were many, mystical things going on when this happened and the writings of the Gospels and Epistles brought out so much more about redemption, salvation, propitiation and everything associated with the blood of Messiah and what it accomplished. God gave the people a sign just at the right moment to say that He was about to take the people deeper into the things of heaven and that its mysteries were about to opened to the people, and that's exactly what happened. And not everything has been revealed yet so that door is still open to us today.I hope this answers your question.
Subscribe to:
Posts (Atom)