Olive Tree Image

Olive Tree Image
Now these things happened to them as an example, and they were written for our instruction,
upon whom the ends of the ages have come.

1 Corinthians 10:11 (NASB95)

Friday, January 26, 2007

Q&A Survey of the Old Testament

Q. The Feast of Shavuot is also Pentecost right?

A. The term Shavuot means “weeks” in Hebrew and it is 7 weeks from the first day of the week after Passover, or the Feast of unleavened bread, plus one day making 50 days. So, the Greek term for this day is Pentecost which basically means “fifty” but that is not the biblical term for this day. It is called “Shavuot” for the above reasons. Historically it is believed to be the day that Moses received the Torah on Mount Sinai with all the wind, sounds and fire and God speaking audibly to His people gathered there at the mountain. Jewish tradition believes that God spoke in the 70 known languages of the world, or in tongues because the commandments apply to all men. Interestingly in Acts 2 the people are again gathered in the Temple for the Feast of Shavuot and God manifests Himself with the same signs of wind and fire and speaks to the people in tongues again.

Q. The word for New in “new testament” is chadash. What does it mean?

A. The word chadash has a basic meaning of “renewed” or “rebuild” but it is also used to mean new. This word is generally understood as to renew. It is related to the word “chodesh” which means new moon. Now, the moon is not new every month, it is renewed as far as to be seen again, and that is why the term “new testament” or covenant carries the idea of being renewed or seen again because it is promised in the Torah (Deut. 29.1-30.20) and again in the prophets (Jer 31.31-34; 32.40; Ezek. 36.22-38) and ratified by Yeshua with His own blood. The new testament is the Torah being written on hearts circumcised by the Spirit. So the difference between the Covenant at Sinai and the new covenant (Moab) is not what is written, but where it is written.


Q. People say that Jesus fulfilled the Law so it is no longer in force. Is that true?


A. Let’s read Matt. 5.17 to see what he is saying. He starts out with the fact we aren’t even to think that he came to do away with the Law. So that answers the question did He do away with it. He said He didn’t come for that and to not even think it. He came to fulfill it which means to carry it out, give it meaning, give substance to it, to interpret it correctly. It doesn’t mean “done away with” as some say. He already said He didn’t come to do that so don’t even think it. But people not only think it they teach it. Yeshua said He came to give meaning to the Torah. You can’t truly understand the Torah and the prophets unless you know Yeshua (John 5.39-47; Luke 24.27,44).

Q. I have a professor who says that Jesus quoted from the Old Testament which is partially true, right?

A. He quoted from the Torah, the prophets and the writings called the Tanak which were the only scriptures they had. Remember there was no “new” testament. Now the terms Old and New are really not very accurate and certainly were never used in the Scripture as they are today. It is used to talk about covenants, which is what testament really means, but when man’s theology began to get in the way of truth a belief system developed that said everything before Yeshua was old and everything after the cross is “new” and so the terms began to take on a whole new meaning. The gospels and epistles are all based on the Tanak (Torah, prophets, writings) as their foundation for presenting the truths contained in them. Not one writer of the gospels or epistles ever believed or practiced a theology that said that the Law was done away with. They kept the commandments, ate clean meats, kept the festivals, worshipped in the Temple and offered animal sacrifices. Paul and Stephen were accused of disobeying the Torah and teaching others to do the same and the Scriptures say these were false accusations, so that tells you they did keep the commandments and that they were not “done away with” as people teach today.

Q. Could speaking in tongues and the interpretation also include writing in a foreign language?

A. The answer to your question is in the question. No, it must be spoken otherwise how could it be a sign to the unbeliever?

Reading something written in a foreign language would not be much of a manifestation of a gift from God. The Scriptures were written in a foreign language but that is not the Gift of Tongues or the Interpretation of Tongues.

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